Test Ur Self

REDHAT LINUX SYSTEM ADMINISTRATION 3

1. You are working with your hardware vendor's technical support people to troubleshoot a network card problem.

The technical support representative wants to know which IRQ channel the card is using. Which file would tell

you the IRQ channel for the card?

A. /proc/interrupts

B. /proc/ioports

C. /proc/irqs

D. /proc/sysconfig

2. What function will be performed by the command rpm -ivh foo.rpm?

A. Verification of the files in foo.rpm

B. Recalculation of the MD5 hash value for foo.rpm

C. Installation of the package foo.rpm

D. Verification of the signature for foo.rpm

3. Management has finally approved the budget for you to buy your first high-capacity SCSI tape drive and SCSI

host adapter. You install the host adapter in PCI slot 4 and set the tape drive's SCSI ID to 5. What Linux device

would you use to access the new tape drive?

A. /dev/st0

B. /dev/st1

C. /dev/st4

D. /dev/st5

4. In which file would you look to find the base address of your system's sound card?

A. /proc/sysconfig

B. /proc/ioports

C. /proc/interrupts

D. /proc/base

5. What is the name of the file that contains information about direct memory access channels and the devices associated with them? (give the full path)

/proc/dma.

6. Your /etc/inittab file has a line that reads "id:1:initdefault:" What mode will the system enter when it is booted?

A. Single user mode

B. Non-network multi-user mode

C. Network multi-user mode

D. Multi-user GUI mode

7. What BIOS feature can be turned on to enable the BIOS to access hard disks larger than 8 gigabytes?

A. CHS

B. LBA

C. PIO

D. DMA

8. Which of the following utilities can be used to create the configuration file isapnp.conf?

A. lspci

B. isapnp

C. lsmod

D. pnpdump

9. You have just installed the new wizbang-2.0 library and added its library path to /etc/ld.so.conf. What

command should be run after adding the new library path to ld.so.conf?

/etc/ld.so.conf.

10. Which of the following kernel modules is required for USB? (choose 2)

A. hotplug

B. usbcore

C. usb-uhci

D. usbmgr

11. What will happen if you issue the command dpkg -iR /var/tmp/downloads?

~/downloads directory

12. According to the Linux Standard Base (LSB) specification, runlevel 3 is reserved for which of the following

system states?

A. Single user mode

B. Non-network multi-user mode

C. Network multi-user mode

D. Multi-user GUI mode

13. Which program can be used in conjuction with Point-to-Point connections to execute modem connection scripts

non-interactively.

A. minicom

B. chat

C. pscript

D. uucico

14. You are planning a new Linux installation with separate partitions for /, /boot, /tmp and /usr. Which of the following

file systems will be the largest?

A. /

B. /boot

C. /tmp

D. /usr

15. What is the configuration file for LILO? (give the full path)

/etc/lilo.conf.

16. What is the directory that contains configuration files for GRUB? (give the full path)

/boot/grub directory.

17. You have accidentally deleted the file /usr/lib/libm.so. It needs to be re-installed, but you cannot remember

what package it comes from. Which of the following commands would help you find the package that contains

libm.so?

A. rpm -qf libm.so

B. rpm -e libm.so

C. rpm -ivh libm.so

D. rpm -qi libm.so

18. You have accidentally deleted the file /usr/lib/zlib.so on a Debian system. Which of the following commands

would help you find the package that contains zlib.so?

A. dpkg -S zlib.so

B. dpkg -r zlib.so

C. dpkg -i zlib.so

D. dpkg -l zlib.so

19. Version 1.7 of your favorite web browser has just been released as an RPM package. You would like to install

it while automatically un-installing any other versions. Which RPM command will allow you to install a new

version of an RPM while automatically un-installing other versions?

A. rpm --install

B. rpm --upgrade

C. rpm --verify

D. rpm --erase

20. Version 1.5 of your favorite instant messenging client has just been released as a Debian package. You would

like to install it while automatically un-installing any other versions. Which dpkg command will allow you to

install a new version of a dpkg while automatically un-installing other versions?

A. dpkg --extract

B. dpkg --install

C. dpkg --new

D. dpkg --purge

SUN SOLARIS

1. Which of the following is not a requirement for Solaris 10 installation?

A. A minimum of 384 MB memory for GUI installation

B. A minimum of 200 MHz processor speed for SPARC

C. A minimum of 20 GB disk space

D. A minimum of 64 MB memory for installation in text installer mode

2. The read only memory that contains the boot instructions on x86 machine is called:

A. Boot PROM

B. BIOS

C. NVRAM

D. EPROM

3. Which of the following pieces of information are not included in the /etc/group file?

A. User names

B. GID

C. Group name

D. User IDs

4. A user account you created on your Solaris 10 system already has the maximum

allowed number of groups assigned t it. You want to assign another group to this user.

Which file will you modify to change the maximum number of groups allowed to be

assigned to the user?

A. /etc/default/passwd

B. /etc/default/group

C. /etc/limits.h

D. /usr/include/limits.h

5. You are planning to install Entire Plus OEM Software Group of Solaris 10 on an AMD

Opetron machine. You want to be able to boot the machine and install Solaris on it over

the network. Which of the following choices meet the minimum hardware requirements

for this machine?

A. 120 MHz processor, 2 GB disk space, 64 MB memory, and PXE support.

B. 100 MHz processor, 7 GB disk space, 128 MB memory, and PXE support.

C. 120 MHz processor, 6.7 GB disk space, and 128 MB memory.

D. 200 MHz processor, 6.7 GB disk space, and 64 MB memory.

6. Click the Exhibit button.

Exhibit:

#ls -li

7      -rw-r-xr-- 2 trent             cong       25    Jul 4       11:15       file1

7      -rw-r-xr--         2 trent              cong        25   Jul 4       11:15      file2

10    lrwxrwxrwx   1 nancy sen   10   Jul 4        14:45      file3

->/home/john/runit

11    -rw-r—r--       2 trent              cong        300 Jul 4        12:18       file4

Which of the following is a true statement about these files?

A. file1 is a symbolic link to file2

B. file2 is a symbolic link to file1

C. file3 is a symbolic link to file /home/john/runit

D. file3 is a hard link to file /home/john/runit

7. You have already added a user slibby on your Solaris 10 system. Which of the

following command will add this user to a secondary group scapegoat?

A. groupadd slibby scapegoat

B. useradd slibby scapegoat

C. usermod -G scapegoat slibby

D. usermod -g scapegoat slibby

8. The user hford does not have access to ftp on your Soalris 10 system. You want to

provide him the access. Which of the following actions will you take? (Choose one.)

A. Add hford to the /etc/ftpd/ftpusers file.

B. Delete hford from the /etc/ftpd/ftpusers file.

C. Add hford to the /etc/ftpd/login file.

D. Delete hford from the /etc/ftpd/login file.

9. You want to retrieve information about the last three times your Solaris 10 system was

rebooted. Which of the following commands will you use? (Choose one.)

A. last reboot | tail -3

B. reboot –a | tail -3

C. who –r | tail -3

D. less /stc/sadm/reboot/log

10. You want to know the information about the ftp service on your Solaris 10 system

including the full pathname to the ftp daemon . Which of the following commands

can you use to get this information?

A. inetadm –l ftp

B. svcs –l ftp

C. ftpadm –l

D. inetadm –d ftp

11. Which of the following files are typically modified (or created) when you initialize

an LDAP client? (Choose all that apply.)

A. /var/ladp/ldapclient.conf

B. /etc/nsswitch.conf

C. /var/ldap/ldap_client_file

D. /var/ldap/ldap_client_cred

12. Which of the following databases is not cached by the naming service cache

daemon?

A. netmasks

B. passwd

C. ipnodes

D. hosts

13. Which command will create the swap file /export/swap/swapfile of 700 MB

swap space on your Solaris 10 system?

A. mkfile 700 m /export/swap/swapfile

B. make 700 m /export/swap/swapfile

C. touch 700 m /export/swap/swapfile

D. swap -a 700 m /export/swap/swapfile

14. Which of the following is not true about global core files in Solaris 10 OS?

A. A global core file is created when an application or a process terminates abnormally.

B. The owner of a global core file is the root user or a superuser.

C. Their permission is set to read write permission for the owner and no permission for anyone else.

D. They are created by default in the directory /etc/core.

15. You want to shutdown the hme0 interface of your Solaris machine. Which command

will you issue?

A. ifconfig hme0 off

B. ifconfig hme0 down

C. svcadm hme0 down

D. svcadm hme0 off

16. You want to assign an IP address 192.168.2.3 to an interface hme1 on your Solaris

10 machine. Which of the following commands will accomplish this?

A. ifconfig hme1 192.168.2.3

B. ifconfig 192.168.2.3

C. netstat hme1 192.168.2.3

D. ipaddress hme1 192.168.2.3

17. Which file contains the DNS configuration information on your Solaris 10 machine?

A. /etc/dns.conf

B. /etc/dns.cfg

C. /etc/resolv.conf

D. /var/dns.conf

18. You have configured SVM on your Solaris 10 system. In your configuration, there

are two state database replicas on each of the four disks in your system. What is the

minimum number of state database replicas that must be available for your system to

continue running after one of the replica crashes.

A. 1

B. 8

C. 2

D. 4

E. 5

19. You installed Solaris 10 on your machine and let the installation program choose the

default value for the swap space. You have not added any extra swap space since the

installation. How much swap space does your system has?

A. 512 KB

B. 256 MB

C. 1 GB

D. 512 MB

20. You are administering a Solaris 10 system for an organization. A group of users working

on a project has requested you to create a directory hearing with the group ownership,

and allow all the users in the group to read and execute the files. However, the files in the

directory must be owned by the group that also owns the directory. You have created the

directory and assigned it the correct group ownership. Now, which of the following

command will assign the desired permissions? (Choose two)

A. chmod 755 hearing

B. chmod 2666 hearing

C. chmod g+s hearing

D. chown hearing=g                               

CCNP ROUTING

1. Which of the following can you use to alleviate congestion in an internetwork

(if used correctly)?

A. Repeaters

B. Routers

C. DLC

D. Switches

E. Bridges

2. Choose the three layers Cisco uses for building its hierarchical internetwork

model.

A. Fundamental

B. Distribution

C. IGRP

D. Core

E. Backbone

F. Access

3. Identify the characteristics of a scalable internetwork.

A. Reliability

B. Responsiveness

C. Efficiency

D. Adaptability

E. Accessibility

F. All of the above

4. What is the primary function of the Core layer?

A. To distribute client/server router information

B. To provide an optimized and reliable transport structure

C. To provide access to various parts of the internetwork, as well as

to services

D. To provide access to corporate resources for a workgroup or users

on a local segment

5. What is the primary function of the Distribution layer?

A. To distribute client/server router information

B. To provide an optimized and reliable transport structure

C. To provide access to various parts of the internetwork, as well as

to services

D. To provide access to corporate resources for a workgroup or users

on a local segment

6. What does the OSPF neighbor status init mean?

A. Hello packets have been received from the OSPF neighbor.

B. The router is going to exchange LSA information.

C. The interface has been assigned to an area.

D. Adjacency information has been exchanged between neighbors.

7. What does the OSPF neighbor status 2Way mean?

A. That a router has received a Hello packet with its own Router ID listed as a neighbor.

B. That a router has received a Hello packet from the DR.

C. That a router is exchanging LSU packets.

D. That a router is waiting for the LSU from the DR.

8. What does the OSPF neighbor status ExStart mean?

A. The OSPF process is starting on the interface.

B. The router is establishing the Master/Slave roles for Database Description packet exchange.

C. All routing information is beginning to be exchanged between routers.

D. An LSA flood is about to start.

Review Questions 159

9. What does the OSPF neighbor status Loading mean?

A. Routers are loading (exchanging) full DD and LSR packets.

B. Routers are loading the topology database.

C. Routers are loading the link-state database.

D. Routers are sending LSR packets to request new LSA information.

10. What does the OSPF neighbor status Exchange mean?

A. Exchange of Hello packets

B. Exchange of routing updates

C. Exchange of full route information via LSR and Database Description packets

D. Exchange of ABR and ASBR information

11. Which of the following are not features of EIGRP? (Choose all that

apply.)

A. Incremental updates

B. Only one route per destination

C. Support for IP, IPX, and AT

D. Hybrid distance-vector and link-state routing protocol

E. Not a scalable protocol

F. Hello protocol used to establish adjacencies

12. Which of the following problems may occur if route redistribution

occurs?

A. Non-optimal route choices

B. Slow convergence

C. Routing loops

D. All of the above

13. When using the show ip route command, which of the following codes

indicate an EIGRP learned route?

A. D

B. R

C. S

D. I

14. When using EIGRP, the process number indicates which of the

following?

A. Link-state value

B. Autonomous system number

C. Path cost

D. Number of ACKs

15. Which of the following commands can be used to learn the number of

EIGRP packets sent and received?

A. show ipeigrp mail

B. show ipeigrp sent

C. show ipeigrp traffic

D. show ipeigrp data

E. show ipeigrp counters

16. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot a

problem with an external AS not receiving updates from your AS?

(Choose all that apply.)

A. show ipbgp events

B. show ipbgp neighbors

C. show ipbgp all

D. show ipbgp

17. To disable synchronization when all of the routers in an AS are running

BGP, which of the commands would be used?

A. disable synchronization

B. no ipbgp synchronization

C. synchronization disable

D. no synchronization

18. Which of the following attributes can be used to help identify the correct

networks for CIDR implementations?

A. Atomic Aggregate

B. Next-hop

C. MED

D. Weight

E. Local Preference

19. When using the neighbor command with the weight syntax, in

which range of values can the weight syntax be set?

A. No limit

B. 1 to 255

C. 0 to 65,535

D. 1 to 1000

20. Which of the following commands will begin a BGP process on a router and place you in BGP Configuration mode?

A. router enablebgp

B. router ipbgp 45323

C. router bgp 32455

D. router enablebgp 34657

CCNP SWITCHING

1. Which of the following devices performs transparent bridging?

a. Ethernet hub

b. Layer 2 switch

c. Layer 3 switch

d. Router

2. When a PC is connected to a Layer 2 switch port, how far does the collision domain

spread?

a. No collision domain exists.

b. One switch port.

c. One VLAN.

d. All ports on the switch.

3. What information is used to forward frames in a Layer 2 switch?

a. Source MAC address

b. Destination MAC address

c. Source switch port

d. IP addresses

4. What does a switch do if a MAC address cannot be found in the CAM table?

a. The frame is forwarded to the default port.

b. The switch generates an ARP request for the address.

c. The switch floods the frame out all ports (except the receiving port).

d. The switch drops the frame.

5. In the Catalyst 6500, frames can be filtered with access lists for security and QoS

purposes. This filtering occurs according to which of the following?

a. Before a CAM table lookup

b. After a CAM table lookup

c. Simultaneously with a CAM table lookup

d. According to how the access lists are configured

6. Which of the following cannot be automatically determined and set if the far end of

a connection doesn’t support autonegotiation?

a. Link speed

b. Link duplex mode

c. Link media type

d. MAC address

7. Which of these is not a standard type of gigabit interface converter (GBIC) or small

form factor pluggable (SFP) module?

a. 1000BASE-LX/LH

b. 1000BASE-T

c. 1000BASE-FX

d. 1000BASE-ZX

8. What type of cable should you use to connect two switches back to back using their

Fast Ethernet 10/100 ports?

a. Rollover cable

b. Transfer cable

c. Crossover cable

d. Straight-through cable

9. Which of the following incorrectly describes a native VLAN?

a. Frames are untagged on an 802.1Q trunk.

b. Frames are untagged on an ISL trunk.

c. Frames can be interpreted by a nontrunking host.

d. The native VLAN can be configured for each trunking port.

10. If two switches each support all types of trunk encapsulation on a link between

them, which one will be negotiated?

a. ISL

b. 802.1Q

c. DTP

d. VTP

11. Which VLANs are allowed on a trunk link by default?

a. None

b. Only the native VLAN

c. All active VLANs

d. Only negotiated VLANs

12. Which command configures a switch port to form a trunk without using negotiation?

a. switchport mode trunk

b. switchport mode trunk nonegotiate

c. switchport mode dynamic auto

d. switchport mode dynamic desirable

13. Which command can be used to see the status of an EtherChannel’s links?

a. show channel link

b. show etherchannel status

c. show etherchannel summary

d. show ether channel status

14. A switch block should be sized according to which two of the following parameters?

a. The number of access-layer users

b. A maximum of 250 access-layer users

c. A study of the traffic patterns and flows

d. The amount of rack space available

e. The number of servers accessed by users

15. What evidence can be seen when a switch block is too large? (Choose all that apply.)

a. IP address space is exhausted.

b. You run out of access-layer switch ports.

c. Broadcast traffic becomes excessive.

d. Traffic is throttled at the distribution-layer switches.

e. Network congestion occurs.

16. How many distribution switches should be built into each switch block?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 8

17. Which one of the following can filter packets even if they are not routed to another

Layer 3 interface?

a. IP extended access lists

b. MAC address access lists

c. VLAN access lists

d. Port-based access lists

18. In what part of a Catalyst switch are VLAN ACLs implemented?

a. NVRAM

b. CAM

c. RAM

d. TCAM

19. Which one of the following commands can implement a VLAN ACL called test?

a. access-list vlan test

b. vacl test

c. switchport vacl test

d. vlan access-map test

20. After a VACL is configured, where is it applied?

a. Globally on a VLAN

b. On the VLAN interface

c. In the VLAN configuration

d. On all ports or interfaces mapped to a VLAN

EXCHANGE SERVER

Question: 1 Your network contains an Active Directory forest. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008. You need to ensure that you can install an Exchange Server 2010 server in the Active Directory forest. What should you do?

A. From the Exchange Server 2010 installation media, run setup /ps.

B. From the Exchange Server 2010 installation media, run setup /NewProvisionedServer.

C. From the Windows Server 2008 installation media, run adprep.exe /forestprep.

D. From the Windows Server 2008 installation media, run adprep.exe /domainprep.

Question: 2 You plan to deploy Exchange Server 2010 on a new server. The server will be a member of a database availability group. You need to identify the operating system that can be installed on the server to support Exchange Server 2010. Your solution must minimize costs. Which operating system should you identify?

A. Windows Server 2003 R2 Standard Edition

B. Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard Edition

C. Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2) Enterprise Edition

D. Windows Server 2008 Service Pack 2 (SP2) Enterprise Edition

Question: 3 You have an Active Directory forest that contains one domain named contoso.com. The functional level of both the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2003. You have an Exchange Server 2003 organization. All servers have Exchange Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2) installed. You plan to transition to Exchange Server 2010. You need to prepare the Active Directory environment for the deployment of the first Exchange Server 2010 server.

What should you run?

A. Setup.com /PrepareAD

B. Setup.com /PrepareDomain

E. Setup.com /PrepareLegacyExchangePermissions D. Setup.com /PrepareSchema

Question: 4 You have an Exchange organization that contains Exchange 2000 Server and Exchange Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2) servers. You plan to transition the organization to Exchange Server 2010. You need to prepare the Exchange organization for the deployment of Exchange Server 2010 Mailbox, Client Access, and Hub Transport servers. What should you do first?

A. Install the Active Directory Connector (ADC).

B. Delete all Recipient Update Service (RUS) objects

C. Deploy an Exchange Server 2010 Edge Transport server.

D. Remove all Exchange 2000 Server servers from the organization.

Question: 5 You have an Active Directory forest that contains three sites named Site1, Site2, and Site3. Each site contains two Exchange Server 2007 Client Access servers, two Mailbox servers, and two Hub Transport servers. All Exchange Server 2007 servers have Exchange Server 2007 Service Pack 1 (SP1) installed. You need to ensure that you can deploy Exchange Server 2010 servers in Site1. You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do?

A. Upgrade all Client Access servers in the organization to Exchange Server 2007 Service Pack 2 (SP2).

B. Upgrade all Exchange Server 2007 servers in Site1 to Exchange Server 2007 Service Pack 2 (SP2).

C. Upgrade all Exchange Server 2007 servers in the organization to Exchange Server 2007 Service Pack 2 (SP2).

D. Upgrade all Exchange Server 2007 servers in Site1 and all Client Access servers in the organization to Exchange Server 2007 Service Pack 2 (SP2).

Question: 6 Your network contains an internal network and a perimeter network. You have one Exchange Server 2010 server on the internal network. You install Windows Server 2008 R2 on a new server in the perimeter network. You need to ensure that you can install the Edge Transport server role on the new server. What should you do?

A. Join the new server to an Active Directory domain.

B. Install Active?Directory Lightweight Directory Services on the new server.

C. Run ImportEdgeConfig.ps1 on the existing Exchange Server 2010 server.

D. Open TCP port 88 and TCP port 3268 on the firewall between the perimeter network and the internal network.

Question: 7 You have a server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. You plan to install Exchange Server 2010 on the server. You need to install the Exchange Server 2010 prerequisites for the Unified Messaging (UM), Mailbox, Client Access, and Hub Transport server roles. What should you run?

A. Setup.com /AnswerFile:Exchange-All.xml

B. Setup.com /Roles:HT, MB, UM, CA, MT

C. ServerManagerCmd.exe -IP Exchange-All.xml

D. ServerManagerCmd.exe -IP Exchange-CADB.xml

Question: 8 You have a server that runs Windows Server 2008 Service Pack 2 (SP2). You plan to install Exchange Server 2010 on the server. You need to install the Exchange Server 2010 prerequisites for the Mailbox, Client Access, and Hub Transport server roles. What should you do on the server?

A. Install Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 Service Pack 1 (SP1)

Install Windows Management Framework Run ServerManagerCmd.exe –IP Exchange-Typical.xml

B. Install Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 Service Pack 1 (SP1)

Install Windows Remote Management (WinRM) 2.0 Run ServerManagerCmd.exe –IP Exchange-Base.xml

C. Install Windows Management Framework

Install Message Queuing Install the Web Server role

D. Install Windows Management Framework

Install the Web Server role Install the RPC over HTTP Proxy component

Question: 9 You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You need to install the Exchange 2010 management tools on the computer. What should you do first?

A. Install Telnet Client.

B. Run the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer.

C. Set the Net.TCP Port Sharing service to Automatic.

D. Install Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.1 and the Internet Information Services (IIS) 6.0 Management console.

Question: 10 You need to perform an automated installation of an Exchange Server 2010 server. Which command should you include in your script?

A. setup.exe

B. setup.com

C. msiexec.exe

D. lpsetupui.exe

Question: 11 You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization. You need to install the Hub Transport server role on a new server. You install all the prerequisites for the Hub Transport role on the server. What should you do next?

A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Add-WindowsFeature cmdlet.

B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Install-TransportAgent.ps1 script.

C. At the command prompt, run Setup.com /M:Install /R:HT.

D. At the command prompt, run ServerManagerCmd.exe -IP Exchange-HUB.xml

Question: 12 You have an Exchange organization that contains the Exchange servers shown in the following table. You plan to move all mailboxes from Server2 to Server3. You need to ensure that all users can send and receive e-mail messages after their mailboxes are moved to Server3. What should you do?

A. Install the Exchange Server 2010 Hub Transport server role.

B. Install the Exchange Server 2010 Edge Transport server role.

C. Remove all Exchange Server 2003 servers.

D. Remove the Exchange Server 2003 front-end server. Install a new Exchange Server 2010 Client Access server.

Question: 13 You have an Exchange organization. The Exchange servers in the organization are configured as shown in the following table. You deploy a new Exchange Server 2010 Client Access server named Server4 and successfully update the required DNS records for Server4. You need to ensure that all users on Server3 can successfully access their mailboxes by using Exchange ActiveSync. What should you do?

A. On Server1, set the authentication type for the Microsoft-Server-ActiveSync virtual directory to NTLM.

B. On Server1, set the authentication type for the Microsoft-Server-ActiveSync virtual directory to anonymous.

C. From the Exchange Management Shell on Server4, run New-ActiveSyncDeviceAccessRule –QueryString * -Characteristic DeviceModel –AccessLevel Allow.

D. From the Exchange Management Shell on Server3, run Set-ActiveSyncVirtualDirectory -Identity "Server3\ Microsoft-Server-ActiveSync (default web site)" -Basicauthentication:$true.

14. How do routers filter a network? (Choose all that apply.)

A. By logical address

B. By IP address

C. By digital signaling

D. By hardware address

E. By IPX address

15. How do switches segment a network?

A. By logical address

B. By IP address

C. By hardware address

D. By IPX address

16. What is a drawback of filtering a network with bridges?

A. It segments the network.

B. It creates internetworks.

C. It forwards all broadcasts.

D. It filters frames.

17. How can you reduce routing table entries?

A. Route summarization

B. Incremental updates

C. IP filtering

D. VLANs

18. Which Cisco IOS features are available to help reduce bandwidth

usage? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Access lists

B. Snapshot routing

C. Compression of WANs

D. TTL

E. DDR

F. Incremental updates

19. Which Cisco IOS features serve to provide stability and availability?

(Choose all that apply.)

A. Reachability

B. Convergence

C. Alternative path routing

D. Snapshot routing

E. Tunneling

F. Dial backup

G. Load balancing

20. Which Cisco layer is responsible for breaking up collision domains?

A. Core

B. Backbone

C. Distribution

D. Access