ccnp routing questions and answers

OSPF Areas

 1. A router chooses the Router ID based on which of the following?

 A. Lowest IP address from any interface

 B. Highest IP address from any interface

 C. Lowest IP address from any loopback interface

D. Highest IP Address from any loopback interface

 2. What are the three areas of OSPF operation? (Choose three.)

 A. Link-state routing

B. SPF calculation

C. LSA flooding

D. Neighbor discover and adjacency formation

 3. Which of the following is the IOS command to set the cost on an OSPF interface?

 A. ipospf no-default cost

 B. ipospf no-summary cost

C. ipospf cost cost

 D. ipospf-cost cost

 4. In what type of topology do all routers have a virtual connection to all other routers?

A. Full-mesh

 B. Star

 C. Hub-and-spoke

 D. Bus

 5. What does an OSPF neighbor status of down mean?

 A. The connected interfaces are in a “line down, line protocol down” state.

 B. No Hello packets have been transmitted from the interface.

 C. The interface is administratively shut down.

D. No Hello packets have been received on the interface.

 6. What does the OSPF neighbor status init mean?

A. Hello packets have been received from the OSPF neighbor.

 B. The router is going to exchange LSA information.

 C. The interface has been assigned to an area.

 D. Adjacency information has been exchanged between neighbors.

 7. What does the OSPF neighbor status 2Way mean?

A. That a router has received a Hello packet with its own Router ID listed as a neighbor.

 B. That a router has received a Hello packet from the DR.

 C. That a router is exchanging LSU packets.

 D. That a router is waiting for the LSU from the DR.

 8. What does the OSPF neighbor status ExStart mean?

 A. The OSPF process is starting on the interface.

B. The router is establishing the Master/Slave roles for Database Description packet exchange.

 C. All routing information is beginning to be exchanged between routers.

 D. An LSA flood is about to start.

 Review Questions 159

 9. What does the OSPF neighbor status Loading mean?

 A. Routers are loading (exchanging) full DD and LSR packets.

 B. Routers are loading the topology database.

 C. Routers are loading the link-state database.

D. Routers are sending LSR packets to request new LSA information.

 10. What does the OSPF neighbor status Exchange mean?

 A. Exchange of Hello packets

 B. Exchange of routing updates

C. Exchange of full route information via LSR and Database Description packets

 D. Exchange of ABR and ASBR information

 11. What does the OSPF neighbor status Full indicate?

 A. The OSPF topology database has been filled.

B. The OSPF topology databases are synchronized.

 C. The neighbor database is synchronized.

 D. The OSPF link-state table is full.

 12. Which of the following network types have a DR and a BDR assigned?(Choose all that apply.)

A. Broadcast

 B. Point-to-point

C. NBMA broadcast

 D. NBMA point-to-point

 E. NBMA point-to-multipoint

 13. Which routers form adjacencies with routers designated as DROtheron a broadcast multi-access network? (Choose all that apply.)

 A. DROther

B. BDR

C. DR

 D. RP

 14. Which IP multicast address corresponds with AllSPFRouters?

 A. 224.0.0.4

B. 224.0.0.5

 C. 224.0.0.6

 D. 224.0.0.7

 15. Which of the following OSPF terms refers to a connected (or adjacent) router that is running an OSPF process, with the adjacent interface assigned to the same area?

 A. Link

B. Neighbor

 C. LSA

 D. STP

 16. What is the valid range for the cost metric for OSPF interfaces?

 A. 1–255

 B. 1–2046

 C. 1–63,535

D. 1–65,535

 17. Which method does Cisco use to calculate the cost of a link?

A. 1 x 108 / bandwidth

 B. bandwidth / 1 x 108

 C. Dijkstra’s Algorithm

 D. 1 / bandwidth

 18. What OSPF term refers to a network or router interface assigned to

 any given interface?

A. Link

 B. Area

 C. LSA

 D. STP

 19. All OSPF networks must contain which of the following?

 A. Route redistribution configuration

B. Area 0

 C. A designated controller

 D. A manually defined interface cost

 20. Which of the following are advantages of OSPF over RIP? (Choose all

 that apply.)

A. Speed of convergence

 B. Simplicity to configure

C. Support for VLSMs

D. Scalability

Chapter 5 Interconnecting OSPF Areas

 1. Which of the following are scalability issues with single area OSPF

 networks? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Size of the routing table

B. Size of the OSPF database

 C. Maximum hop count limitation

D. Recalculation of the OSPF database

 2. Which of the following describes a router that connects to an external

 routing process (e.g., EIGRP)?

 A. ABR

B. ASBR

 C. Type 2 LSA

 D. Stub router

 3. Which of the following makes use of route redistribution?

 A. Stub area

 B. Totally stubby area

 C. ABR

D. NSSA

 4. Which of the following describes the syntax used to summarize intraarea

 routes on an ABR?

 A. ip route summarize area-id network-address networkmask

 B. summary-address network-address network-mask

C. area area-id range network-address network-mask

 D. summary area-id network-address network-mask

 5. Which IOS command shows information about a router’s OSPF database,

 such as router link states and network link states?

 A. debug ospf events

 B. show ipospf border-routers

 C. show ipospf neighbor

D. show ipospf database

 6. What is the term given to describe a router connected to multiple

 OSPF areas?

A. ABR

 B. ASBR

 C. Type 2 LSA

 D. Stub router

 7. As compared to a standard OSPF area, what is unique about a stub area?

 A. It does not receive Summary Link Advertisements.

B. It does not receive Type 5 LSAs.

 C. It makes use of route redistribution.

 D. It is a concept specific to Cisco routers.

 8. What is the IOS syntax to designate an area as a not-so-stubby area?

A. area area-id nssa

 B. area area-id stub

 C. area area-id no-summary

 D. area area-id stub no-summary

 Review Questions 197

 9. What is an autonomous system boundary router (ASBR)?

A. Any OSPF router that is connected to an external routing process

 B. Any OSPF router that is connected to an internal routing process

 C. Any router that is connected to multiple OSPF areas

 D. Any router that is connected to single OSPF areas

 10. Which of the following can be described as a router that has all of its

 interfaces in the same area?

 A. Area border router

B. Internal router

 C. Autonomous System Boundary Router

 D. Designated router

 11. Which of the following IOS commands shows an ABR’s internal

 router routing table?

 A. debug ospf events

B. show ipospf border-routers

 C. show ipospf neighbor

 D. show ipospf database

 12. As compared to an OSPF stub area, what is unique about an OSPF

 totally stubby area? (Choose all that apply.)

 A. It does not receive Type 5 LSAs.

B. It is a Cisco-specific feature.

C. It does not receive summary Link State Advertisements.

 D. It makes use of route redistribution.

 13. Which of the following are design guidelines for setting up stub areas?

 (Choose all that apply.)

 A. Use only when a router within an area connects to an external

 routing process (e.g., EIGRP).

B. Do not make the backbone area a stub area.

C. If you decide to make a particular area a stub area, be sure to configure

 all the routers in the area as stubby.

 D. Configure only the area’s ABR as stubby.

 14. What is the IOS syntax to create a virtual link?

 A. area source-area-id virtual-link destination-area-id

 B. link area-id router-id

 C. ospf map area-id router-id

D. area area-id virtual-link router-id

 15. Which of the following IOS commands shows the state of adjacency

 with neighbor routers?

 A. debug ospf events

 B. show ipospf border-routers

C. show ipospf neighbor

 D. show ipospf database

 16. Which of the following statements are true regarding Summary Link

 Advertisements (SLAs)? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Type 3 LSAs are Summary Link Advertisements.

B. Totally stubby areas do not receive Summary Link Advertisements.

C. Type 4 LSAs are Summary Link Advertisements.

 D. Stub areas do not receive Summary Link Advertisements.

 17. Which of the following can be defined as a router that exists (wholly

 or in part) in OSPF Area 0?

A. Backbone router

 B. Autonomous system boundary router

 C. Designated router

 D. Area border router

 18. Which of the following describes the syntax used to summarize external

 routes on an ASBR?

 A. ip route summarize area-id network-address networkmask

B. summary-address network-address network-mask

 C. area area-id range network-address network-mask

 D. summary area-id network-address network-mask

 19. Which of the following IOS commands shows the formation of router

 adjacencies?

A. debug ospf events

 B. debugipospf border-routers

 C. debug ipospf neighbor

 D. debug ipospf database

 20. Which of the following LSA types is referred to as an AS External Link

 Advertisement?

 A. Type 1 LSA

 B. Type 2 LSA

 C. Type 3 or Type 4 LSA

D. Type 5 LSA

IGRP AND EIGRP

 1. When does EIGRP recalculate its topology table?

 A. On a synchronized schedule

 B. When an administrator uses the redirect command

 C. Automatically every 120 seconds

D. Only when there is a change in the network topology

 2. The neighbor table uses which of the following timers? (Choose all

 that apply.)

A. SRTT

B. RTO

C. Hold timer

 D. FwdDelay timer

 E. MaxAge timer

 3. When there are no feasible successors and only one link to a destination

 network, even if the link cost is set to 100,000, the link will

 always be in which of the following modes?

 A. On

 B. Standby

C. Active

 D. Sending

 4. Which of the following are not routed protocols supported by EIGRP?

A. TCP

 B. IP

 C. IPX

 D. AppleTalk

 5. What are benefits of using a link-state routing protocol? (Choose all

 that apply.)

A. It uses the Hello protocol to establish adjacencies.

 B. It uses several components to calculate the metric of a route.

C. Updates are sent only when changes occur in the network.

 D. It is a better protocol than distance-vector is.

 6. Which route type must be redistributed by a routing protocol if other

 routers are to learn about it?

 A. RIP

 B. Default routes

 C. Connected routes

D. Static routes

 7. Why are passive interfaces used on interfaces where the router participates

 in EIGRP Global mode processes?

 A. To stop unwanted route information from entering the specified

 interface

 B. To allow route information to be filtered by an access list

 C. To allow routes to be sent out the specified interface, but deny

 route information to enter the interface

D. To allow routes to enter the interface, but deny any route information

 to exit the specified interface

 8. How is a feasible successor chosen when the successor fails (assuming

 that a redundant route exists)? (Choose all that apply.)

A. The route with the next-lowest metric is chosen.

B. If a router doesn’t have a feasible successor, queries are multicast

 to neighboring routers in search of a feasible successor.

 C. The route is removed from the routing table.

 D. The route is flagged as an active state.

 9. Which command should be used to ensure proper metric conversion

 when redistributing routes from different protocols?

 A. distance distance-value

B. default-metric

 C. distribute-list

 D. default-information

 10. How is EIGRP implemented on a router?

 A. ip router eigrp autonomous-system-number

 B. router ipeigrp autonomous-system-number

 C. router eigrp process-id

D. router eigrp autonomous-system-number

 11. Which of the following are not features of EIGRP? (Choose all that

 apply.)

 A. Incremental updates

B. Only one route per destination

 C. Support for IP, IPX, and AT

 D. Hybrid distance-vector and link-state routing protocol

E. Not a scalable protocol

 F. Hello protocol used to establish adjacencies

 12. Which of the following problems may occur if route redistribution

 occurs?

 A. Non-optimal route choices

 B. Slow convergence

 C. Routing loops

D. All of the above

 13. When using the show ip route command, which of the following codes

 indicate an EIGRP learned route?

A. D

 B. R

 C. S

 D. I

 14. When using EIGRP, the process number indicates which of the

 following?

 A. Link-state value

B. Autonomous system number

 C. Path cost

 D. Number of ACKs

 15. Which of the following commands can be used to learn the number of

 EIGRP packets sent and received?

 A. show ipeigrp mail

 B. show ipeigrp sent

C. show ipeigrp traffic

 D. show ipeigrp data

 E. show ipeigrp counters

 16. Which of the following is not a route type recognized by IGRP?

A. Network

 B. Interior

 C. System

 D. Exterior

 17. Which of the following are used by IGRP to calculate the best path to

 a destination network? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Bandwidth

B. Load

C. Delay

D. Reliability

 18. By default, what is the maximum number of feasible links that IGRP

 may use to load balance over unequal-cost links?

 A. Two

B. Four

 C. Six

 D. Eight

 19. What is the maximum number of feasible successors that EIGRP can

 place in its routing table?

 A. Two

 B. Four

C. Six

 D. Eight

 20. Which of the following algorithms is used by EIGRP to determine the

 best path?

 A. Open Shortest Path First

B. DUAL

 C. Distance-vector

 D. Link-state routing

 E. Advanced Distance Vector

BGP

 1. Which of the following are needed when configuring BGP?

 A. Router ID

 B. BGP process number

 C. External neighbors

 D. Internal peers

E. All of the above

 2. Which command shows the BGP routes?

A. show ipbgp routes

 B. show ipbgp all

 C. show ip route bgp

 D. show ipbgp paths

 3. Which of the following is an example of properly enabling BGP on a

 router and identifying an internal network?

 A. router ipbgp 10

 network 10.1.1.1 100

 B. router bgp 10

 network 10.1.1.1 remote-as 10

 C. router bgp 100

 neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 100

D. router bgp 100

neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 200

 4. Which of the following is an example of how to configure BGP with

 an external BGP neighbor?

 A. router ipbgp 10

 network 10.1.1.1 100

 B. router bgp 10

 network 10.1.1.1 remote-as 10

 C. router bgp 100

 neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 100

D. router bgp 100

neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 200

 5. Which of the following are valid BGP show commands?

A. show ipbgp

B. show ipbgp paths

C. show ipbgp summary

 D. show bgp all

 E. show bgpip debug

 6. In the command neighbor 172.16.2.2 remote-as 500, what is the

 function of the remote-as syntax?

A. The syntax identifies the AS of the remote router that the local

router will initiate a session with.

 B. It identifies the local remote ASN.

 C. It tells the local router to find the remote autonomous system.

 D. It allows BGP to bypass the TCP connection process because you

 have identified the ASN.

 7. Which of the following commands creates a route in the BGP table

 and identifies the networks that are part of the internal AS?

 A. aggregate-paths

 B. show ipbgp

 C. neighbors summary-only

D. network

 8. Which of the following identifies the function of the clear ipbgp *

 command?

 A. It clears an identified entry in the BGP routing.

B. It clears all entries in the BGP table.

 C. It clears all entries in the IGP’s topology table.

 D. It resets IP sessions.

 9. Which of the following BGP attributes informs neighboring AS routers

 as to which link to use to receive traffic?

 A. Atomic Aggregate

 B. Next-hop

C. MED

 D. Weight

 10. In the following list of attributes, which of the following is a Cisco

 proprietary attribute?

A. Weight attribute

 B. Next-hop attribute

 C. MED attribute

 D. Atomic Aggregate attribute

 11. Which of the following commands displays the status of all BGP

 connections?

 A. show ipbgp

B. show ipbgp status

 C. show ipbgp all

 D. show ipbgp summary

 12. Using the clear ipbgp command, which syntax is used to identify

 that the command is to affect inbound or outbound triggered updates?

 A. inbound

B. soft

 C. triggered

 D. outbound

 13. When using debug commands with BGP, which of the following displays

 all the BGP events as they occur?

 A. debugipbgp dampening

 B. debug ipbgp summary

C. debugipbgp events

 D. debugipbgp all

 14. The Weight attribute can be set to a value in which of the following

 ranges?

 A. 1 through 65,535

 B. 1 through 32,768

 C. 1 through 512

D. 0 through 65,535

 15. Using the BGP aggregate-address command, which of the following

 syntaxes can be used to advertise routes as coming from your AS?

 A. as-local

B. as-set

 C. as-summary

 D. as-well-known

 16. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot a

 problem with an external AS not receiving updates from your AS?

 (Choose all that apply.)

 A. show ipbgp events

B. show ipbgp neighbors

 C. show ipbgp all

D. show ipbgp

 17. To disable synchronization when all of the routers in an AS are running

 BGP, which of the commands would be used?

 A. disable synchronization

 B. no ipbgp synchronization

 C. synchronization disable

D. no synchronization

 18. Which of the following attributes can be used to help identify the correct

 networks for CIDR implementations?

A. Atomic Aggregate

 B. Next-hop

 C. MED

 D. Weight

 E. Local Preference

 19. When using the neighbor command with the weight syntax, in

 which range of values can the weight syntax be set?

 A. No limit

 B. 1 to 255

C. 0 to 65,535

 D. 1 to 1000

 20. Which of the following commands will begin a BGP process on a router and place you in BGP Configuration mode?

 A. router enablebgp

 B. router ipbgp 45323

C. router bgp 32455

 D. router enablebgp 34657

BGP Scalability and Advanced Features

 1. Access lists are read from top to bottom. Therefore, which of the following should be near the top?

A. Least restrictive

 B. Most restrictive

 C. Permit or deny

 D. Deny only

 2. Which of the following should be used to reduce the number of routes in a routing table?

 A. EIGRP

 B. DDR

 C. Route carving

D. Route summarization

 3. Which of the following are true of a prefix list? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Statements can be added at any time.

B. Statements can be assigned a sequence number.

 C. Statements use the set command to tell the

 prefix list what to do.

D. Any statements can be deleted at any time.

 4. A router acting as a route reflector should have

 a peer connection with which of the following routers?

A. Other route reflectors

 B. The route reflector’s clients

 C. Non-clients

D. All of the above

 5. If multiple ISPs are connected to your network,

 BGP can load balance over up to how many links?

 A. Eight

 B. Thirty-two

C. Six

 D. One

 6. You can define communities using which type of

 filters?

 A. Standard access lists

B. Route maps

 C. Prefix lists

 D. Extended access lists

 7. Which of the following can be used to avoid

 creating a full-mesh network? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Confederations

 B. Route maps

 C. Prefix lists

D. Route reflectors

 8. Which of the following commands shows the configured peer BGP

 routers and the current connection state?

 A. show ipbgp all

 B. show cdpbgp neighbors

 C. show running-config

D. show ipbgp neighbors

 9. What router command mode is used to start BGP using the router bgp 100 command?

 A. User mode

 B. Privilege mode

C. Global Configuration mode

 D. Interface Configuration mode

 E. Route Map Configuration mode

 10. What are two advantages of prefix lists overdistribute lists?

A. Less CPU usage

B. Easy to configure

 C. Affect advertised routes and data coming into an interface

 D. Can be configured on individual interfaces

 11. Which of the following is not a way of managing routes advertised by BGP routers?

 A. Using route maps

 B. Using prefix lists

 C. Using distribute lists

 D. Using path filters

E. Using redistribution lists

 12. You can lengthen the AS-PATH length by doing which of the following?

 A. Add a new value using the ipbgp as-path value command.

B. Add false AS numbers

 C. Add a new value using the set as-path extended command.

 D. Use the bgp dampening command.

 13. Statements in distribute lists are processed in which order? (Choose all that apply.)

A. The order in which they were entered

B. From the top down

 C. The order given by the sequence number

 D. All of the above

 14. When configuring a prefix list, if the seq syntax is not used, in what sequence are numbers assigned and in what increment?

 A. 1 (1,2,3…)

B. 5 (10,15,20…)

 C. 10 (10,20,30…)

 D. 25 (25,50,75…)

 15. A BGP router not participating in a route reflector cluster is calledwhich of the following?

 A. Non-cluster client

 B. Non-BGP router

C. Non-client

 D. Non-iBGP client

 16. The COMMUNITIES attribute can contain a value in what range ofnumbers?

 A. 1 to 1012

 B. 1 to 255

 C. 0 to 512

D. 1 to 4,294,967,200

 17. Which of the following is not used in confederations?

 A. iBGP

 B. eBGP

 C. Sub-ASes

D. Sequence numbers

 E. Confederation identifier

 18. Which command can be used to disable sequence numbering whencreating prefix lists?

 A. ipbgp prefix-list sequence-number disable

B. no ip prefix-list sequence-number

 C. disableipbgp prefix-list sequence-number

 D. no ip prefix-list

 19. Which of the following ranges of numbers can be assigned to a BGPdistribute list?

 A. 299 to 399

 B. 1 to 200

C. 1 to 199

 D. 1 to 2,000

 20. When creating prefix lists, which of the following are optional syntaxes?

 A. list-name

B. ge

C. le

D. seq

ROUTE OPTIMIZATION

 1. Which of the following is the metric used by RIP?

 A. Ticks

 B. Bandwidth

 C. Delay

D. Hop count

 2. Which of the following is the network address and subnet mask of the

 default route?

 A. 127.0.0.1 255.255.255.255

B. 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

 C. 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0

 D. 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255

 3. What are the two clauses used by route maps?

 A. metric

B. match

 C. access

D. set

 4. Which of the following are Cisco proprietary protocols? (Choose all

 that apply.)

 A. RIP

B. IGRP

 C. OSPF

D. EIGRP

 5. Which of the following are metric components of IGRP? (Choose all

 that apply.)

A. Delay

 B. Hops

C. Bandwidth

 D. Ticks

 6. What number would we assign to the load component of an EIGRP

 metric to indicate that a link was approximately 10 percent loaded?

 A. 10

 B. 1

 C. 2.5

D. 25

 7. What is the default MTU size metric component for an Ethernetinterface?

A. 1500 bytes

 B. 1518 bytes

 C. 64 bytes

 D. 4000 bytes

 8. What is the most desirable value for the reliability metric component?

A. 255

 B. 0

 C. 1

 D. 100

 9. Which of the following protocols share similar metrics?

 A. RIP and OSPF

B. IGRP and EIGRP

 C. BGP and RTMP

 D. NLSP and RIP

 10. What command, under the router eigrp 10 command, would you

 enter to set the default metric for EIGRP to use, regardless of which

 protocol was being distributed into the EIGRP process?

 A. redistribute eigrp metric 56 10 255 1 1500

B. default-metric 56 10 255 1 1500

 C. metric 10

 D. default metric 10

 11. Given the access list access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255, what

 command would allow only network 10.0.0.0/8 to be added to a

 router’s routing table?

 A. access-list 1 in

 B. distribute-list 1 out

C. distribute-list 1 in

 D. distribute 1 out

 12. What happens to packets that are forwarded to the Null0 interface?

 A. The packets are sent to the gateway of last resort.

 B. The packets are policy-routed.

 C. The packets are marked as discard eligible.

D. The packets are discarded.

 13. Which of the following commands will display the default redistribution

 metric for a protocol?

 A. show ip route

 B. trace

C. show ip protocols

 D. debug ip route

 14. Which of the following commands will redistribute manually configured

 routes into a specified routing process?

 A. redistribute connected

B. redistribute static

 C. redistribute default

 D. redistribute local

 15. If a local interface is not part of a routing process, what command may

 be used to inject its route into a routing process?

A. redistribute connected

 B. redistribute static

 C. redistribute default

 D. redistribute local

 16. Which of the following are possible applications of route maps?

 (Choose all that apply.)

A. Load sharing

B. Directing different traffic types over different links

C. Route redistribution

 D. Traffic prioritization

 17. Given the command route-map routemail permit 20, what does

 20 represent?

A. The sequence number of the route map

 B. The access list number being used

 C. The TCP port number being routed

 D. The percent of bandwidth to be allocated

 18. In order for IGRP and EIGRP to automatically redistribute routes into

 each other, what must be true?

 A. They must be advertising subnets of the same major network.

B. They must have the same process ID (the same Autonomous

System).

 C. They must be in different areas.

 D. They must both be in totally stubby areas.

 19. What command could you use to view RIP updates as they occur?

 A. show ip protocols

 B. show ip route

 C. show ip rip

D. debug ip rip

 20. What does the command distribute-list 2 out do?

 A. It prevents or permits the routes specified in access-list 2 from

 being added to the local routing table.

B. It prevents or permits the routes specified in access-list 2 from

being advertised.

 C. It redirects the routes specified in access-list 2 to the Null0

 interface.

 D. It redistributes routes specified in access-list 2 to all routing

 protocols.